I was just watching a show on TV about the Borden murders, and I wondered, once again, why Lizzie didn't seize the opportunity, when she was being questioned by the police, to implicate poor Bridget in the murders? We know how stratified society was back then...a wealthy Borden vs. a poor Irish Catholic servant girl--no doubt about who would have been believed! So why was Lizzie so quick to insist that Bridget had nothing whatever to do with either murder? It wouldn't have had to be an outright accusation, even...just a carefully timed hesitation, some feigned uncertainty--and the police would have been all over poor Bridget. Lizzie wasn't stupid, she had to have known that she would be suspected, so why not at least try to deflect some suspicion onto a poor Irish maid?
Another question, not really related to the first but I'm curious. The show I was watching stated that Bridget was illiterate. That possibility hadn't even occurred to me. I don't know what growing up poor in a large Irish family was like in the 19th century---was illiteracy that common? Esp. among girls? I would have thought that Bridget was at least somewhat literate...does anyone know??? (And if she truly was illiterate, she wouldn't have known whether Mrs. Borden received a note from anyone or not that fatal morning!)
Okay, just one more question. I know that after Bridget married another Sullivan
I'd love to hear everyone's thoughts on these questions cause they're driving me crazy--I mean, crazier than usual!